is the lcm of a pair of numbers ever equal to one of the numbers? explain with an example

Question

03-12-2015
Mathematics

contestada

is the lcm of a pair of numbers ever equal to one of the numbers? explain with an example

Respuesta :

Otras preguntas

helpp Which of the following statements best describes the English Bill of Rights? (3 points) It discouraged forming a government with a king in what became the

Please help brainiest for correct answer please i need this done quick

Chronological order of historical events during 1200-1450 time period?

Please don't report me i just wanna know who said they knew me. Who said they new me and then never said anything back? And don't just say u did and don't just

Pls answer all 1) What happened in Massachusetts that scared the nation’s leaders? 2) Which of the following was part of the way a territory could become a stat

Majid is 69in tall. Convert his height to centimeters.

what's a ven diagram

1. DNA and other evidence suggest that the earliest Americans came from where?

2 (10x+8)-1=5(x-6) a. x = -3 b. x = -13/15 c. x = 3/5 d. x = 3

marisofi16 marisofi16 · Answer 1 · 2015-12-13T03:18:34+01:00

marisofi16 marisofi16

13-12-2015

Yes, it could be equal, but it doesn't occur that often. For example, the LCM of 2 and 1 is 2. So could happen but you don't see it that a often. Only when you want to find the LCM of another number and 1.

Answer Link